"These are the words that Moshe spoke to all Israel" [Devarim 1:1]
Why, asked the Megaleh Amukos [R' Nosson Nota Shapira] does the verse state "...that Moshe spoke to all Israel" and not simply "...that Moshe spoke to Israel"?
The acronym of the word "eileh" he answered is "avak lashon hara" - the dust of evil speech - subtle types of slander.
Chazal state in Maseches Bava Basra [165b] "Most individuals transgress the sin of theft, a small minority transgress the sin of illicit relations, but all transgress the sin of avak lashan hara." The grave sin of lashon hara is a sin that all of Israel might come to transgress, so all Jews must be cautioned of the danger it presents. The verse therefore states: "These are the words that Moshe spoke to all Israel."
Source: Rabbi Yisrael Bronstein
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